omsb OMSB-OEN Exam Questions

Questions for the OMSB-OEN were updated on : Nov 21 ,2025

Page 1 out of 7. Viewing questions 1-15 out of 99

Question 1

A woman attends the health center with complaints of sudden, severe and sharp pain in the lower
abdomen and an absence of menses for 8 weeks. The ultrasound reveals ectopic pregnancy.
When interviewing the woman, which of the following will the nurse ask about as risk factor of
ectopic pregnancy?

  • A. Oral contraceptive usage
  • B. Frequency of sexual activity
  • C. History of chlamydial infection
  • D. History of urinary tract infection
Answer:

C

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Explanation:
A history of chlamydial infection is a significant risk factor for ectopic pregnancy. Chlamydia can cause
scarring and damage to the fallopian tubes, increasing the likelihood of a fertilized egg implanting
outside the uterus. Oral contraceptive usage generally reduces the risk of ectopic pregnancy. The
frequency of sexual activity and history of urinary tract infections are not directly related to the risk
of ectopic pregnancy. Identifying and understanding these risk factors is essential for appropriate
management and prevention strategies.

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Question 2

A group of nurses conducting a systematic review to identify best practice evidence for hemodialysis
in patient with anemia.
Which of the following should considered based on level of research evidence?

  • A. Case-control studies
  • B. Non-experimental studies
  • C. Quasi-experimental studies
  • D. Randomized control studies
Answer:

D

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Explanation:
Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are considered the highest level of evidence in research because
they reduce bias and provide the most reliable results. When conducting a systematic review to
identify best practice evidence for hemodialysis in patients with anemia, RCTs should be prioritized.
These studies provide strong evidence on the efficacy of interventions. Case-control studies, non-
experimental studies, and quasi-experimental studies provide valuable information but are
considered lower levels of evidence compared to RCTs.

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Question 3

While caring for a patient diagnosed with cerebrovascular accident, the nurse noted that the patient
is unable to recognize familiar objects.
The nurse would use which of the following terms to describe the finding?

  • A. Apraxia
  • B. Agnosia
  • C. Aphasia
  • D. Anopsia
Answer:

B

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Explanation:
Agnosia is the term used to describe a condition where a person is unable to recognize familiar
objects, even though their sensory modalities (like vision or hearing) are intact. This can occur after a
cerebrovascular accident (stroke) if the part of the brain responsible for processing sensory
information is damaged. Apraxia refers to the inability to perform purposeful movements or tasks
despite having the desire and physical ability to do so. Aphasia is a condition characterized by the
inability to understand or express speech. Anopsia refers to a defect in the visual field.

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Question 4

A client with major depressive disorder is placed on phenelzine 15 mg BID. The nurse discussed with
the client the dietary restrictions to follow while taking this medication.
Which of the following instructions MUST be included in teaching?

  • A. Avoid garlic, fish, and egg yolks
  • B. Avoid milk, peanuts, and tomatoes
  • C. Avoid black beans, garlic and pears
  • D. Avoid parmesan cheese, beef liver, raisins
Answer:

D

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Explanation:
Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used to treat major depressive disorder.
Patients taking MAOIs must avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent hypertensive crises. Parmesan
cheese, beef liver, and raisins are high in tyramine and should be avoided. Garlic, fish, egg yolks,
milk, peanuts, tomatoes, black beans, and pears do not typically contain high levels of tyramine and
are generally safe to consume while taking MAOIs. The dietary restrictions are crucial to preventing
dangerous interactions and maintaining patient safety.

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Question 5

Which of the following tests is conducted to detect the hypokinetic and a kinetic wall motion of the
heart and check the ejection fraction?

  • A. Electrocardiogram
  • C. Echocardiogram
  • D. Angiography
  • E. Stress test
Answer:

C

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Explanation:
An echocardiogram is a diagnostic test used to detect hypokinetic (reduced movement) and akinetic
(no movement) wall motion of the heart and to assess the ejection fraction, which measures the
percentage of blood leaving the heart each time it contracts. This test uses ultrasound waves to
create images of the heart's structure and function. An electrocardiogram (ECG) records the electrical
activity of the heart, angiography visualizes blood vessels, and a stress test evaluates the heart's
response to physical exertion.

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Question 6

A nurse aims to establish a respectful therapeutic relationship with a patient.
Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate to achieve this?

  • A. Discussing non-health-related topics
  • B. Being congruent between what is felt and what is expressed
  • C. Considering client's ideas, preferences, and opinions when planning care
  • D. Understanding the meaning and relevance of client's thoughts and feelings
Answer:

C

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Explanation:
Establishing a respectful therapeutic relationship involves actively including the client's ideas,
preferences, and opinions in their care planning. This action demonstrates respect for the client's
autonomy and individuality, fostering trust and cooperation. Discussing non-health-related topics
may help build rapport but does not directly contribute to a therapeutic relationship. Being
congruent and understanding the client's thoughts and feelings are important but are part of the
overall communication process rather than a specific action to establish respect in the relationship.

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Question 7

A nurse is examining a 24-month-old child with hydrocephalus for the development of later signs of
hydrocephalus.
Which of the following signs the nurse would find?

  • A. Frontal bossing
  • B. Bulging fontanels
  • C. Separated sutures
  • D. Dilated scalp veins
Answer:

A

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Explanation:
In a 24-month-old child with hydrocephalus, later signs of the condition include frontal bossing,
which is the prominent, protruding forehead caused by the enlargement of the frontal bone. This is a
characteristic feature of chronic hydrocephalus. Bulging fontanels, separated sutures, and dilated
scalp veins are typically earlier signs of hydrocephalus seen in younger infants before the cranial
sutures close. As the child ages, frontal bossing becomes more apparent due to prolonged
intracranial pressure.

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Question 8

The nurse understands that caring for a woman with gestational diabetic complications is exhibited
as an example of.

  • A. Health promotion
  • B. Health maintenance
  • C. Health restoration
  • D. Health rehabilitation
Answer:

C

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Explanation:
Caring for a woman with gestational diabetes complications falls under health restoration. Health
restoration involves actions taken to return a patient to their previous state of health or to manage
chronic conditions. This includes managing and treating complications to improve health outcomes.
Health promotion focuses on preventing health problems through lifestyle changes, health
maintenance involves ongoing monitoring and prevention of deterioration, and health rehabilitation
focuses on helping patients recover functionality after severe illness or injury.

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Question 9

During a discharge planning of an educated 79-year-old woman, the patient expresses concern to the
nurse about how she will remember taking the medications recently prescribed.
What is the BEST intervention that can be incorporated by the nurse in the discharge plan?

  • A. Ask a family member to administer the medications to the patient
  • B. Get the patient a weekly pill box and develop a written medication schedule
  • C. Refer the patient to care home center to help her with medications administration
  • D. Consult the physician to shortlist the prescribed drugs or prescribe combined medications
Answer:

B

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Explanation:
The best intervention for helping an educated 79-year-old woman remember to take her
medications is to provide a weekly pill box and develop a written medication schedule. This
approach empowers the patient to manage her medications independently, reducing the risk of non-
compliance. Asking a family member to administer medications or referring the patient to a care
home might not be necessary if the patient can manage with simple tools. Consulting the physician
to reduce or combine medications is an option but does not address the immediate need for a
practical solution to medication management.

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Question 10

Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action in the termination phase of the home visit?

  • A. Validate the health history of the family
  • B. Document the care provided during the visit
  • C. Determine the family's readiness for more visits in future
  • D. Review important teaching topics discussed during the visit
Answer:

D

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Explanation:
In the termination phase of a home visit, the appropriate nursing action is to review important
teaching topics discussed during the visit. This ensures that the family understands the care
instructions and can ask any final questions. Validating the health history and documenting the care
provided are important but are typically part of the initial or ongoing phases of the visit. Determining
readiness for future visits is also important but is secondary to ensuring the family understands the
teaching provided.

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Question 11

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of aortic dissection is:

  • A. Poor control diabetes
  • B. Poor control liver disease
  • C. Poor control hypertension
  • D. Poor control kidney disease
Answer:

C

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Explanation:
Poorly controlled hypertension is the most common cause of aortic dissection. Hypertension
increases the pressure within the aorta, leading to damage to the aortic wall and making it more
susceptible to tearing. Diabetes, liver disease, and kidney disease can contribute to cardiovascular
problems, but they are not the primary causes of aortic dissection. Managing blood pressure is
critical in preventing this life-threatening condition.

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Question 12

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding abuse in elderly persons?

  • A. Exploitation is the most common form of elder abuse
  • B. Caregiver stress can lead to the abuse of older adult
  • C. Most cases of elder abuse are reported to the proper authorities
  • D. Health care providers are only mandated to report verified elder abuse
Answer:

B

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Explanation:
Caregiver stress is a significant factor that can lead to the abuse of older adults. Caring for elderly
individuals, especially those with complex health needs, can be physically and emotionally
demanding, leading to burnout and stress in caregivers. This stress can manifest as abusive behavior
towards the elderly. Exploitation, while a form of elder abuse, is not the most common; physical and
emotional abuse are more prevalent. Most cases of elder abuse go unreported, and health care
providers are mandated to report suspected, not just verified, cases of elder abuse.

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Question 13

A nurse is caring for a patient with acute gallbladder inflammation.
The nurse understands that which of the following foods can help to reduce the incidence of acute
episodes of gallbladder pain and cholecystitis?

  • A. Boiled rice
  • B. Fried chicken
  • C. Rich dressings
  • D. Scrambled eggs
Answer:

A

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Explanation:
For a patient with acute gallbladder inflammation (cholecystitis), it is important to avoid foods that
can trigger gallbladder pain. Boiled rice is a bland, low-fat food that is less likely to cause gallbladder
irritation. Fried chicken, rich dressings, and scrambled eggs (especially if cooked with butter or oil)
are high in fat and can stimulate gallbladder contractions, leading to pain and worsening
inflammation. Therefore, boiled rice is the most suitable option to help reduce the incidence of acute
episodes of gallbladder pain.

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Question 14

A nurse is caring for a patient with leukemi
a. The patient's family refuse to inform the patient about the diagnosis. The nurse felt difficult to
accommodate the family request. The nurse decided to use the Moral Decision-Making Model to find
the best solution.
What is the initial step the staff nurse should take?

  • A. Decide who should be involved in decision making
  • B. Identify her goal of this ethical problem
  • C. Identify alternatives and analyze the causes
  • D. Recognize there is an ethical issue
Answer:

D

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Explanation:
The initial step in the Moral Decision-Making Model is to recognize that there is an ethical issue. This
step involves acknowledging the conflict between the family's request and the nurse's professional
and ethical obligation to the patient. Once the ethical issue is identified, the nurse can proceed with
the subsequent steps, including identifying stakeholders, goals, alternatives, and making a decision
based on ethical principles.

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Question 15

What is the maximum duration for therapeutic bath effects for a 45-year-old patient with perineum
irritation?

  • A. 5 minutes
  • B. 10 minutes
  • C. 15 minutes
  • D. 90 minutes
Answer:

C

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Explanation:
The maximum duration for the therapeutic effects of a bath, especially for conditions like perineum
irritation, is generally 15 minutes. This duration is sufficient to provide relief and ensure the
therapeutic benefits without causing skin maceration or other complications. Shorter durations may
not provide adequate relief, and significantly longer baths can lead to issues like skin breakdown.

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