Questions for the CV0-004 were updated on : Nov 23 ,2025
A project team that handles sensitive data analysis recently onboarded three new employees. Which
of the following should the PM do first?
A
Explanation:
When onboarding new staff who will handle sensitive data, the PM must first verify their security
clearance or authorization. Only authorized personnel should access sensitive systems or datasets.
Training follows after confirming clearance. Data analysis itself should never begin until security
requirements are validated.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – Security & Compliance in Projects; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004
Cloud Security domain.
Which of the following best describes why a project manager would decide to sign a fixed-price
contract with a vendor?
A
Explanation:
A fixed-price contract is suitable when the scope is well defined and stable. This shifts cost risk to the
vendor, as they must deliver within the agreed-upon price. NDAs, requirements volume, or logistics
do not determine contract type as strongly as scope clarity does.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – Procurement & Contracts; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004
Governance, Risk & Compliance domain.
The PMO wants to streamline the routing and approval of project activities to provide up-to-date
visibility of the status. Which of the following collaboration tools would be most appropriate to use?
C
Explanation:
A workflow and e-signature platform automates approvals, routing, and visibility of project tasks.
This ensures that documents and activities are approved quickly and transparently, supporting
operational efficiency. Real-time editing or file storage doesn’t inherently provide workflow
automation.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – Collaboration & Approval Tools; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004
Operations & Support domain.
During a phase review, two stakeholders discuss the approval of a deliverable. The project manager
convinces the stakeholders to agree on a common solution. Which of the following best describes
what the project manager did to gain approval from both stakeholders?
C
Explanation:
By negotiating a middle ground, the PM used compromise as a conflict resolution technique. Force
and avoid do not build consensus, while smoothing minimizes issues but does not resolve them.
Compromise achieves agreement acceptable to both sides.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – Conflict Resolution; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Governance,
Risk & Compliance domain.
A project sponsor has asked for a log listing all the bugs identified within a specific project. Which of
the following tools should the project manager provide to the sponsor?
D
Explanation:
A defect log specifically tracks bugs, errors, or defects discovered in the product. It includes
descriptions, severity, and resolution. Issue logs capture broader non-technical challenges, while
change logs and risk registers serve different purposes.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – Logs & Registers; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Operations &
Support domain.
A project manager is taking notes along with gathering feedback about a prior project in order to
consider known issues with a project enhancement. Which of the following best describes the plan
that the project team is working on?
B
Explanation:
The team is leveraging lessons learned to create a preventive plan for avoiding issues in the
upcoming project enhancement. This falls under risk management and compliance, ensuring
previous failures do not repeat.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – Lessons Learned & Risk Avoidance; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-
004 Governance, Risk & Compliance domain.
Project team members enter their time sheets into a system that also displays incurred project cost.
Which of the following systems can perform this task?
D
Explanation:
An ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning) system integrates financial management, HR, and operations.
In this case, ERP can handle time tracking and cost reporting together. EDRMS manages documents,
CRM handles customer relationships, and CMS manages content—not project costs.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – Enterprise Systems; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Cloud Storage
& Data Management domain.
Which of the following situations would require a project manager to revise the communication plan
during a project's execution?
C
Explanation:
If team members are confused about which meetings to attend, this indicates a flaw in the
communication plan. Revising the plan ensures clear expectations on who participates in which
communication events. Scope or schedule changes don’t automatically require altering the
communication plan.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – Communication Planning & Updates; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-
004 Governance, Risk & Compliance domain.
A project team is reviewing the project plan and related documents and identifies tasks that could be
spread into smaller deliverables. Which of the following documents should the team edit first?
C
Explanation:
The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the hierarchical decomposition of deliverables into smaller,
manageable work packages. If tasks need to be split into smaller deliverables, the WBS is the
document to update first. Risk assessments and milestone charts serve other purposes.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – WBS & Scope Management; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Cloud
Architecture & Design domain.
Which of the following best describes a benefit of the CI/CD process?
A
Explanation:
CI/CD (Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment) allows faster and more reliable delivery by
automating builds, tests, and deployments. It ensures rapid delivery without compromising quality.
Updates are frequent but not necessarily tied to sprint cycles.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – CI/CD Benefits; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Cloud Deployment
domain.
A project manager must determine how ideas from the organization and results from the review
committee should move through the enterprise for a new project. Which of the following does the
project manager need to do?
A
Explanation:
The correct step is to establish communication channels that ensure proper flow of information from
idea origination through review and approval. Kickoff meetings occur later, while RACI matrices and
stakeholder identification are planning tools — not communication flow structures.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – Communication Planning; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004
Governance, Risk & Compliance domain.
A project manager is reviewing quality planning techniques. Which of the following involves
comparing results of similar activities?
C
Explanation:
Benchmarking is a quality technique that compares results, processes, or best practices from similar
activities or organizations. It helps set realistic performance standards and identify improvement
opportunities. Unlike cost-benefit analysis (financial), benchmarking focuses on performance
comparison.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – Quality Planning Techniques; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004
Operations & Support domain.
A project manager is assigned to a project that has contracted with vendors. Which of the following
actions should the project manager most frequently take? (Select two).
C, D
Explanation:
When managing vendor contracts, the PM must validate vendor status reports to confirm progress
and monitor vendor performance against agreed service levels. Approving deliverables occurs less
frequently, and creating charters/baselining schedules are initiation tasks, not recurring vendor
management tasks.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – Procurement & Vendor Management; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-
004 Governance, Risk & Compliance domain.
A retail store is rolling out a new point-of-sale solution to several locations where the staff members
normally use cash registers. Which of the following activities will best assist staff members with
integrating this new solution? (Select two).
A, D
Explanation:
For successful adoption of new systems, user documentation and training sessions are essential.
Documentation provides reference material, while training equips staff with hands-on knowledge for
daily operations. Gap analysis and monitoring are planning and control tasks but do not directly
support staff integration.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – Change Management & Training; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004
Operations & Support domain.
A project team is deciding how to break up a large project into smaller components so the project
can be delivered without increasing the duration of the iteration cycles. Which of the following
describes the grouping of the smaller components?
D
Explanation:
In agile methodology, an epic is a large user story or body of work that can be broken down into
smaller backlog items deliverable within iteration cycles. This enables large projects to be
incrementally deployed while maintaining predictable iteration lengths.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 – Agile Planning & Work Breakdown; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-
004 Cloud Deployment domain.