Questions for the 156-215-81 were updated on : Dec 01 ,2025
When a Security Gateway communicates about its status to an IP address other than its own, which
deployment option was chosen?
C
Explanation:
A Distributed Deployment is when the Security Management Server and Security Gateway are
installed on separate machines. In this setup, the Security Gateway communicates its status to the
Security Management Server, which resides at a different IP address.
Option A (Incorrect): "Targeted" is not an official Check Point deployment mode.
Option B (Incorrect): In Bridge Mode, the Security Gateway acts as a Layer 2 bridge and does not
communicate its status to another IP.
Option D (Incorrect): In Standalone Mode, the Security Gateway and Management Server are on the
same machine, meaning it does not communicate status to a different IP.
Thus, the correct answer is C. Distributed.
Reference:
Check Point documentation confirms that in Distributed Deployments, the Security Gateway
communicates with the Management Server, which is located at a different IP address .
Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security
Management Server, the certificate information is _____.
B
Explanation:
When a certificate is revoked from a Security Gateway, the information is stored on the Certificate
Revocation List (CRL). The CRL is maintained by the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) and is checked
during certificate validation processes.
Option A (Incorrect): The Security Management Server maintains certificate information but does not
store revoked certificates permanently.
Option C (Incorrect): The Internal Certificate Authority manages certificate issuance but does not
store revoked certificates—it publishes a CRL instead.
Option D (Incorrect): The Security Administrator does not receive direct notifications of revoked
certificates.
Thus, the correct answer is B. Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.
Reference:
Check Point documentation confirms that revoked certificates are listed in the Certificate Revocation
List (CRL) .
In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?
A
Explanation:
In Check Point’s Security Management Architecture, logs can be stored on the Security Management
Server and Security Gateway.
Security Management Server stores logs when configured to do so.
Security Gateways can store logs locally, but they are often forwarded to a Security Management
Server or a dedicated Log Server.
Option B (Incorrect): SmartConsole is only a management interface and does not store logs.
Option C (Incorrect): SmartConsole does not store logs.
Option D (Incorrect): Logs are not exclusively stored on the Security Management Server—they can
also be stored on the Security Gateway.
Thus, the correct answer is A. Security Management Server and Security Gateway.
Reference:
Check Point documentation confirms that logs can be stored on both the Security Gateway and the
Security Management Server .
Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?
C
Explanation:
The correct command to show detailed information about VPN tunnels is vpn tu.
vpn tu is an interactive command that provides detailed VPN tunnel status and allows you to clear
specific VPN-related connections.
vpn tu tlist (Option B) is not a valid command.
cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf (Option A) only displays configuration settings but does not provide real-
time VPN tunnel details.
cpview (Option D) is a general system monitoring tool and does not focus specifically on VPN tunnels.
Thus, the correct answer is C. vpn tu.
Reference:
Check Point documentation confirms vpn tu is the primary tool for managing VPN tunnels .
When dealing with policy layers, what two layer types can be utilized?
B
Explanation:
Check Point Security Management supports two types of Policy Layers:
Ordered Layers – Enforced in sequential order, where each rule is evaluated before moving to the
next layer.
Inline Layers – A sub-layer within a rule that adds additional inspection without affecting other rules.
Option A (incorrect): "Inbound Layers and Outbound Layers" is not a Check Point terminology.
Option C (incorrect): "Structured Layers and Overlap Layers" do not exist in Check Point policy
management.
Option D (incorrect): Check Point R81.X fully supports Policy Layers.
Thus, the correct answer is B. Ordered Layers and Inline Layers.
Reference:
Check Point documentation clearly defines Ordered Layers and Inline Layers as part of policy
management .
What licensing feature automatically verifies current licenses and activates new licenses added to
the License and Contracts repository?
A
Explanation:
Check Point provides an Automatic Licensing and Verification tool that ensures licenses are properly
validated. This tool:
Automatically checks current licenses against Check Point's online license repository.
Activates newly added licenses.
Ensures compliance with active contracts.
Option B (incorrect): "Verification licensing" is not an official Check Point feature.
Option C (incorrect): "Verification tool" is too generic and does not refer to Check Point’s licensing
system.
Option D (incorrect): "Automatic licensing" does not fully describe the verification and activation
process.
Thus, the correct answer is A. Automatic Licensing and Verification tool.
Reference:
Check Point documentation confirms that license verification and activation is managed
automatically .
AdminA and AdminB are both logged into SmartConsole. What does it mean if AdminB sees a lock
icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer.
A
Explanation:
In Check Point SmartConsole, when multiple administrators work on security policies, a lock icon
appears on rules or objects that are being modified.
If AdminB sees a lock, it means that AdminA is currently editing the rule, and it is locked for others.
Once AdminA publishes the session, the rule becomes available to other administrators.
Option B (incorrect): Saving a session does not release the lock; it must be published.
Option C (incorrect): The lock is not caused by AdminB but by another user (AdminA).
Option D (incorrect): A lock appears when another user (AdminA) is editing, not the current user.
Thus, the correct answer is A. Rule is locked by AdminA and will be made available if the session is
published.
Reference:
Check Point documentation confirms that SmartConsole locks a rule when another administrator is
editing it, and the rule is unlocked upon publishing the session .
Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using the ____ or ____
C
Explanation:
Check Point Gaia can be configured using:
The Command Line Interface (CLI) – This includes Clish and Expert mode, accessible via SSH, console
access, or direct login.
The GAiA Portal (WebUI) – A browser-based graphical user interface used to manage Gaia settings.
Option A (incorrect): The CLI is not limited to serial console access. SSH is widely used.
Option B (incorrect): "Gaia Ultimate Shell" is not an official term.
Option D (incorrect): "Web Ultimate Interface" is not a valid name.
Thus, the correct answer is C. Command line interface; GAiA Portal.
Reference:
Check Point official documentation states that Gaia can be managed using the CLI or WebUI (GAiA
Portal) .
What is the default shell for the Gaia command line interface?
B
Explanation:
In Check Point Gaia OS, the default command-line shell is Clish (B).
Clish (Command Line Shell) is a restricted shell used in Gaia for role-based administration. It controls
user access and limits the number of available commands.
Expert mode (C) is an elevated shell that provides full system root access, but it is not the default
shell. Users must explicitly enter expert mode.
Bash (D) is the underlying Linux shell, but it is not the default.
Admin (A) is not a shell but rather a user role in Gaia.
Thus, the correct answer is B. Clish.
Reference:
Check Point documentation confirms that the default shell in Gaia is Clish .
By default, which port is used to connect to the GAiA Portal?
D
Explanation:
The GAiA Portal is the WebUI for Check Point security appliances. By default, it uses the HTTPS
protocol for secure communication. The default port for HTTPS-based web access is port 443.
Port 4434 (A) is not the default port for GAiA Portal.
Port 80 (B) is the default for standard HTTP, but GAiA Portal requires HTTPS.
Port 8080 (C) is sometimes used for alternative web services, but not for GAiA Portal.
Port 443 (D) is the correct default port for GAiA Portal access.
Thus, the correct answer is D. 443.
Reference:
This default configuration is confirmed in Check Point GAiA documentation .
Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?
B
Explanation:
In Check Point Gaia WebUI, different icons are used to indicate various system states.
Eyeglasses (A) typically represent "view-only" access.
Pencil (B) represents "edit" or read/write access, meaning the user can modify configurations.
Padlock (C) is often used to indicate locked or restricted settings.
Book (D) does not indicate access permissions.
Therefore, the correct answer is "Pencil" (B), which represents that read/write access is enabled in
the WebUI.
Reference:
Check Point Gaia WebUI documentation confirms that the Pencil icon is used for read/write mode .
Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a______________to trust a Terminal Server Identity Agent.
B
Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and
then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe
are both logged in:
A
Explanation:
Since Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform and they both are logged in
on different interfaces, they will both be able to make changes. Gaia allows multiple administrators
to log in simultaneously and perform different tasks without locking the database or logging out each
other. Reference:
Gaia R81.20 Administration Guide
, page 18.
Which option in tracking allows you to see the amount of data passed in the connection?
B
Explanation:
Accounting is the option in tracking that allows you to see the amount of data passed in the
connection. Accounting tracks the number of bytes and packets for each connection and generates
reports based on the collected data. Reference:
Certified Security Administrator (CCSA) R81.20
Course Overview
, page 14.
Which of the following is true about Stateful Inspection?
B
Explanation:
Stateful Inspection is true about looking at both the headers of packets, as well as deeply examining
their content. Stateful Inspection inspects packets at all layers of the OSI model and maintains
information about the state and context of each connection in a state table. Reference:
Certified
Security Administrator (CCSA) R81.20 Course Overview
, page 6.