Questions for the CFR-410 were updated on : Nov 21 ,2025
A digital forensics investigation requires analysis of a compromised system's physical memory. Which
of the following tools should the forensics analyst use to complete this task?
C
Explanation:
Volatility is a powerful memory forensics tool used to analyze a system's physical memory (RAM). It
allows investigators to extract valuable information from memory dumps, such as running processes,
network connections, and other artifacts that are crucial in a digital forensics investigation.
Which two options represent the most basic methods for designing a DMZ network firewall? (Choose
two.)
B, D
Explanation:
Single firewall: A single firewall is the simplest method for designing a DMZ network, where a firewall
is placed between the internal network and the external network (internet), controlling traffic to and
from the DMZ.
Dual firewall: A dual firewall setup uses two firewalls, one between the internal network and the
DMZ, and the other between the DMZ and the external network. This adds an extra layer of security.
Which of the following is a social engineering tactic in which an attacker engages in temptation or
promise of a good or service?
B
Explanation:
Baiting is a social engineering tactic in which an attacker entices the target with the promise of
something desirable, such as free software or a service, in order to lure them into taking an action
that compromises their security, such as downloading malicious software or providing sensitive
information.
How does encryption work to protect information on remote workers' computers?
B
Explanation:
Encryption works by converting data into an unreadable format using a cryptographic algorithm and
a key. The information can only be decrypted and returned to its original, readable form by someone
who possesses the correct decryption key. This ensures that even if an attacker gains access to the
encrypted data, they won't be able to make sense of it without the proper key.
Which of the following plans helps IT security staff detect, respond to, and recover from a cyber
attack?
B
Explanation:
An Incident Response Plan (IRP) helps IT security staff detect, respond to, and recover from a cyber
attack. It outlines procedures for identifying and managing security incidents, minimizing damage,
and restoring systems to normal operations. This plan is essential for an organization's ability to
effectively handle cybersecurity threats.
What are the two most appropriate binary analysis techniques to use in digital forensics analysis?
(Choose two.)
C, D
Explanation:
Static Analysis: Involves examining the binary code without executing it, helping to identify
potentially malicious code, vulnerabilities, or patterns in the file's structure.
Dynamic Analysis: Involves executing the binary in a controlled environment to observe its behavior,
interactions, and effects, which is useful for identifying how the binary functions in real time.
Which of the following is an essential component of a disaster recovery plan?
D
Explanation:
A complete hardware and software inventory is essential for a disaster recovery plan because it
allows an organization to quickly assess which systems and resources are required to restore
operations in the event of a disaster. This inventory helps ensure that critical components are
accounted for and can be replaced or restored as needed.
Which two answer options are the BEST reasons to conduct post-incident reviews after an incident
occurs in an organization? (Choose two.)
B, D
Explanation:
To help identify lessons learned and follow-up action: Post-incident reviews are critical for analyzing
what went well and what could be improved, allowing the organization to apply lessons learned to
future incidents.
To help prevent an incident recurrence: The review process helps identify weaknesses or gaps in the
security posture, leading to actions that can prevent similar incidents from happening again in the
future.
What term means that data is valid and not corrupt?
C
Explanation:
Integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and validity of data over its lifecycle. It ensures that the
data has not been altered or corrupted in unauthorized ways and remains trustworthy for use.
The "right to be forgotten" is considered a core tenet of which of the following privacy-focused acts
or regulations?
A
Explanation:
The "right to be forgotten" is a core tenet of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which is
a privacy and data protection law in the European Union. This right allows individuals to request the
deletion of their personal data from organizations' records under certain conditions, ensuring privacy
and control over their personal information.
Which of the following can be used as a vulnerability management and assessment tool?
A
Explanation:
Nessus is a widely used vulnerability management and assessment tool. It scans systems for known
vulnerabilities, missing patches, and configuration issues, providing reports that help organizations
assess their security posture and prioritize remediation efforts.
Which of the following is BEST suited to prevent piggybacking into a sensitive or otherwise restricted
area of a facility?
A
Explanation:
A mantrap is a physical security control that consists of a small room with two interlocking doors. The
first door must close before the second door opens, preventing unauthorized individuals from
following (or "piggybacking") someone with authorized access into a secure area. This effectively
prevents piggybacking and ensures that only one person can enter at a time.
Which of the following should normally be blocked through a firewall?
A
Explanation:
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is typically used for network management and
monitoring but can be a security risk if not properly secured. SNMP can provide attackers with
valuable information about network devices if exposed to the internet, which is why it is generally
blocked through firewalls unless absolutely necessary and securely configured.
What is the BEST process to identify the vendors that will ensure protection and compliance with
security and privacy laws?
B
Explanation:
A risk assessment is the best process to identify vendors that can ensure protection and compliance
with security and privacy laws. This process involves evaluating the risks associated with different
vendors, assessing their ability to meet security and privacy requirements, and determining how
they manage data protection. It helps to ensure that vendors adhere to relevant laws and standards,
minimizing the organization's exposure to security and privacy risks.
Which of the following are core functions of SIEM solutions?
A
Explanation:
The core functions of SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) solutions typically include:
Alerts of potential attacks: SIEM systems monitor network traffic, system logs, and security events to
detect suspicious activity and generate alerts.
Forensic investigations: SIEM solutions provide tools for investigating past events and identifying the
root cause of security incidents.
Incident detection: SIEM solutions correlate log data from various sources to identify potential
security incidents in real-time.